Miranda rights don’t need to be read until the person in question is under arrest.
Implying he wasn’t under arrest at any point while he was in the McDonald’s because the complaint was no one read him his Miranda Rights.
You now:
He was arrested when they searched the bag
Okay, so going by your earlier comment that is when he should have been read his Miranda Rights.
Actually, hold up a second here:
He was arrested when they searched the bag. Not when he was being questioned.
So the moment the police do an illegal warrantless search of his bag, that is the exact moment it becomes legal because the definition of under arrest is “when police are doing something that would be illegal if you weren’t under arrest”?
That is incredibly fucking convient that he’s not “under arrest” while being questioned (because it would be illegal to question him if he was) but is then immediately “under arrest” when his belongs are searched (because it would be illegal to search them if he wasn’t).
If what you are saying is true, then that is incredibly fucked up because apparently in the American legal system suspects exist in a super position of “under arrest” and “not under arrest” at all times until the police take an action that would be illegal in one of those cases. Then the super position collapses into the one that makes their actions technically not illegal until the police are done with that action, and which point the super position reasserts itself.
So what is the specific action that legally defines when a suspect goes from “not under arrest” to “under arrest”? After all, there are specific rights and actions allowed under one but not the other. So how do the suspect and the police know and legally define when that change takes place?
Could is possibly be… The reading of the Maranda Rights?
I didn’t move the goalposts. You even responded to my specific response to what you said.
He was arrested when they searched the bag. Not when he was being questioned.
Your first comment:
Implying he wasn’t under arrest at any point while he was in the McDonald’s because the complaint was no one read him his Miranda Rights.
You now:
Okay, so going by your earlier comment that is when he should have been read his Miranda Rights.
Actually, hold up a second here:
So the moment the police do an illegal warrantless search of his bag, that is the exact moment it becomes legal because the definition of under arrest is “when police are doing something that would be illegal if you weren’t under arrest”?
That is incredibly fucking convient that he’s not “under arrest” while being questioned (because it would be illegal to question him if he was) but is then immediately “under arrest” when his belongs are searched (because it would be illegal to search them if he wasn’t).
If what you are saying is true, then that is incredibly fucked up because apparently in the American legal system suspects exist in a super position of “under arrest” and “not under arrest” at all times until the police take an action that would be illegal in one of those cases. Then the super position collapses into the one that makes their actions technically not illegal until the police are done with that action, and which point the super position reasserts itself.
This isn’t difficult.
He wasn’t under arrest from the first moment the police talked to him. That doesn’t mean he wasn’t at any subsequent point put under arrest.
So what is the specific action that legally defines when a suspect goes from “not under arrest” to “under arrest”? After all, there are specific rights and actions allowed under one but not the other. So how do the suspect and the police know and legally define when that change takes place?
Could is possibly be… The reading of the Maranda Rights?
No. Because the police don’t have to Mirandize someone when they arrest them.