• DragonTypeWyvern
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      1
      ·
      7 months ago

      Yes. The Egyptians, Babylonians, Hittites, and Phoenicians all had significantly more rights for women than the Hebrews, just to go from notable cultures in the area. Three of those being fellow Semitics, btw, and their tribal ancestors or cousins.

      Equal isn’t right either of course, but the turning point into the standard of what we think of a “woman’s place” in ancient (Mediterranean) societies is largely based on Abrahamic and Roman/Greek traditions, not the other Semitic or Eastern Mediterranean contemporaries.

      Of course, it’s also incorrect to treat it as a static situation. Rights waxed and waned, as most things tend to over the centuries.

      For example, what we think of the “Hebrews” are theorized to have been, effectively, rural tribes that conquered their more egalitarian (but not actually egalitarian by any stretch, mind) Canaanite cousins who otherwise shared their descent, language, and general religion.

      Like Al Qaeda conquering the cities of Afghanistan.

      Or what American Republicans want to do today.