“They” changed the definition would mean the US government changed the definition and that is incorrect.
Lol, if we are basing this on your assumption wouldn’t “they” mean the NBER?
And if they meant either, wouldn’t that still be correct given that the way they define a recession has adapted over time…again they made an extremely vague claim that did not include any specified descriptors, including time.
You were not paying any attention to the subject at and kept losing the thread and then resorting to bs when this was pointed out.
My original claim was that you were having a semantic dispute… That’s still my claim. Your issue is that you are stuck in an intentionality fallacy, where you have assumed the meaning of his statement and then rejected it for not being as specific as you would like.
now that I have explained 3rd grade English grammar
Lol, and you are still failing to understand that the specificity of a pronoun cannot be assumed by a person outside of a discourse. A person making a vague claim after reading an article is not specific enough to assume their meaning unless asked for further clarification.
That isn’t a fallacy either. If they knew about the NBER or not “they” did not change the definition. The definition they thought was correct is an oversimplification and was not correct.
The continuum fallacy (also known as the fallacy of the beard,[9][10] line-drawing fallacy, or decision-point fallacy[11]) is an informal fallacy related to the sorites paradox. Both fallacies cause one to erroneously reject a vague claim simply because it is not as precise as one would like it to be. Vagueness alone does not necessarily imply invalidity. The fallacy is the argument that two states or conditions cannot be considered distinct (or do not exist at all) because between them there exists a continuum of states.
Lol, if we are basing this on your assumption wouldn’t “they” mean the NBER?
And if they meant either, wouldn’t that still be correct given that the way they define a recession has adapted over time…again they made an extremely vague claim that did not include any specified descriptors, including time.
My original claim was that you were having a semantic dispute… That’s still my claim. Your issue is that you are stuck in an intentionality fallacy, where you have assumed the meaning of his statement and then rejected it for not being as specific as you would like.
Lol, and you are still failing to understand that the specificity of a pronoun cannot be assumed by a person outside of a discourse. A person making a vague claim after reading an article is not specific enough to assume their meaning unless asked for further clarification.
OP has no idea who NBER was so “they” would be the government.
Do context clues exist in your first language?
And what evidence has led you to believe that… Oh yeah, another assumption!
Lol, do logical fallacies exist in your first language?
Assumptions are not logical fallacies. Deriving info from context is not either.
The logical fallacies happened when you utilized your assumptions to validate your claim, not when you made an assumption.
That isn’t a fallacy either. If they knew about the NBER or not “they” did not change the definition. The definition they thought was correct is an oversimplification and was not correct.
The continuum fallacy (also known as the fallacy of the beard,[9][10] line-drawing fallacy, or decision-point fallacy[11]) is an informal fallacy related to the sorites paradox. Both fallacies cause one to erroneously reject a vague claim simply because it is not as precise as one would like it to be. Vagueness alone does not necessarily imply invalidity. The fallacy is the argument that two states or conditions cannot be considered distinct (or do not exist at all) because between them there exists a continuum of states.